Why should a poor country receive subsidies on one hand and contribute to a bail out fund for a richer country? If this doesn't make sense to you, then how can you convince Slovakians?
The thing is that within Slovakia, the politicians know that they're using Slovakian middle classes to make money for the rich Slovakians.
That doesn't mean that the rich Slovakians will agree to pay for the rich Greeks !!!!
Because, any bail out fund means less rich paying for richer ones who go on extravaganzas.
The problem with the Greek debt, and the Spanish and many others is, as I have said before, that the Germans and the Dutch and a few other richer countries in the EU no longer want to provide subsidies to the problem countries in return for markets they have already conquered and which they exploit annually.
If the transfer payments continued, from the richer countries, to these poorer countries (even if they are not the poorest with new members coming in) on a regular basis, there would be no problems.
But the German people are not told that their rich German firms have made so much money from the Greeks and the Spanish. Otherwise, the German middle classes would at the very least ask why their taxes are not coming down !!! The answer is that the richest in these rich countries (Germany is only an example since it is the mightiest) exploit everyone: Germans, Greeks and if they could get away with it, even Slovakians.
Now they are going to find a way to get the Slovakians. And they'll make it sound as if Slovakia got a good deal by being allowed to bail out Greece. Yes, that day will come.